Saturday, 4 July 2009

Is this really a great global recession?

In a VoxEU column that attracted significant media attention, Eichengreen and O'Rourke (E&O) present evidence suggesting that the present global economic downturn is "every bit as big as the Great Depression shock of 1929-30" and "every bit as global". In contrast, this post presents an unconventional indicator of global economic activity that shows no sign of truly global recession yet. This indicator is the seasonally adjusted atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration at Mauna Loa, Hawaii. Admittedly, the rate of carbon dioxide emission varies between different industries, and atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration is affected by natural variables such as sea surface temperature, making it a noisy indicator of economic activity. Nevertheless, atmospheric carbon dioxide does have the advantage as an economic indicator that it covers the whole world equally well, including regions where official statistics may be unreliable, and it does seem to have reflected previous major global downturns, so the absence of such a signal so far should at least raise doubts about E&O's assessment of the present episode. The explanation for the disagreement with E&O may be that their analysis gives too much weight to activity in existing developed countries, and that the prominence of the downturn there belies an ongoing improvement in living standards of a vast number of people in poorer countries, especially in Asia, that is to some extent being sustained by stimulating domestic activity to substitute for reduced export demand.

Like many who end up working in finance, RebelEconomist studied science at university, which in his case culminated in research investigating patterns in climatic records. Part of this work involved analysing the seasonal cycle in the well-known Mauna Loa record of atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration established by C.D.Keeling. This seasonal cycle arises because of the net absorption of carbon by plants during the summer (eg as leaves on deciduous trees) and release during the winter months, so that at Mauna Loa (20°N 156°W) the atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration normally peaks in early May and reaches a minimum in early October. Being driven ultimately by astrophysical forces and modulated by global scale environmental influences, the seasonal cycle is relatively stable and easy to model, and subtracting the seasonal cycle from the series isolates the underlying rise in the underlying level of carbon dioxide concentration that is the cause of concern about global warming. Even then, before he took much interest in economic events, RebelEconomist was struck by the marked dip in the upward trend of the seasonally adjusted series during and after 1973, apparently due to the first oil shock triggered by the Yom-Kippur-war-related Arab oil embargo and steep oil price rises (which was all the more marked because it had been preceded by a period of rapid economic expansion), as well as a less distinct deceleration around 1981 associated with another relatively severe downturn. Therefore, when RebelEconomist recently went back to the series to update his PhD analysis for a seminar celebrating his supervisor's research career, he expected to see a similar if not larger slowdown in the rising trend of atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration over the last few months, on the assumption that the present economic downturn is the most severe since the Great Depression. Instead, to his surprise, the updated seasonally adjusted series, based on observations up to and including May 2009 (Figure 1), so far shows no sign of decelerating at all.






















For the geeky reader, the seasonally adjusted series in Figure 1 was obtained by time-variable estimation of a trend plus seasonal cycle model. To be more precise, recursively updated least squares estimates of the model from a forward and backward pass through the series, with parameter variation modelled as an integrated random walk process, were combined to produce a series of smoothed parameter estimates without the lag in parameter changes that would exist in a series of estimates obtained from a single forward pass. More details of these techniques can be found in P.C.Young's "Recursive Estimation and Time-Series Analysis" (published in 1984 by Springer Verlag). However, the seasonal cycle in this series is sufficiently clear and stable that similar results could be obtained with almost any reasonable seasonal adjustment procedure. Although the analysis included the entire record back to 1958, the years since 1970 only are plotted, since over longer periods the relentlessly upward trend makes higher-frequency variations difficult to see.

What might explain the absence of a recent slowdown in the rise of atmospheric carbon dioxide, in contrast to the 1973-5 recession? One possibility is that it is too early to expect the effect of reduced anthropogenic carbon dioxide emissions to reach a place as remote as Mauna Loa yet. On the contrary, the atmosphere is actually "well mixed" around each hemisphere, as the seasonal cycle at Mauna Loa shows by reaching its maximum not long after the end of the northern hemisphere winter, and its minimum close to the end of the northern hemisphere growing season. Also, the inflection in the upward trend around 1973 was practically contemporaneous with the beginning of that recession.

Another potential explanation for the absence of a deceleration of the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide now might be that variations of natural origin are either obscuring anthropogenic effects, or were the real cause of the dip in 1973-5. In particular, sea surface temperature (SST) has a notable effect on atmospheric carbon dioxide at Mauna Loa, because the solubility of carbon dioxide depends inversely on water temperature, although it is not exactly clear what sea area has the most influence on the air at Mauna Loa (situated in the north east trade wind belt), and whether in monthly average observations the SST effect should be most apparent in the level or the change in atmospheric carbon dioxide and with how much lag if any. It seems unlikely though that SST caused the 1973-5 deceleration – SST over the ocean around Mauna Loa (as represented by an average over a box from 0-60°N and 160-230°E of the US National Climatic Data Center’s Extended Reconstructed SST, version 3b) was not markedly lower in 1973 than earlier in that decade (Figure 2).





















Moreover, a muted inflection in 1973 is also evident in the (less complete) record of atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration at the South Pole (Figure 3; the unadjusted series is not plotted in this case because the seasonal cycles are so small that they obscure the seasonally adjusted series).





















Also, as already mentioned, other smaller decelerations seem to coincide with major downturns such as those of 1981-2 and 1990-1. This association is evident in a weak positive correlation (about 0.1) between annual global real economic growth rates and the corresponding year's increase in the seasonally adjusted Mauna Loa carbon dioxide series over the period 1970-2008 (a longer series of quarterly observations of global economic growth rates could not be found; the greater availability of quality-controlled data in the environmental sciences – which honour the contribution of data compilers like Keeling – compared with in economics – which hardly does – is impressive). Certainly, regional SST cannot explain the absence of a current slowdown in the increase of atmospheric carbon dioxide at Mauna Loa; as Figure 2 shows, SST in the region has been generally falling since about 2004, and has not recently (at least until the last two months) been anomalously (relative to the 1971-2000 monthly averages) high.

So, if natural processes and influences cannot readily explain the absence of a current deceleration in the increase of atmospheric carbon dioxide, could it be the case that the present recession is not as great and not as global as E&O would have us believe? Unfortunately, their attempt to compare this downturn with the Great Depression is restricted to variables for which observations covering both periods are available; namely, industrial or manufacturing production (their VoxEU column is not quite clear about which of these is presented), stock market prices and trade flows. Of these, only industrial production is a direct measure of economic output (and manufacturing production would exclude construction); stock market prices reflect expectations for future output as well as how that future output is valued by markets, and it is net trade that contributes to economic output (which matters more when different stages of production are carried out in different countries). In recent months, however, a wider range of domestic economic activity reports from developing countries in Asia, especially from China, have suggested that economic growth there has remained fairly robust, especially by developed country standards. In China, manufacturing for domestic consumption such as car production continues to expand rapidly, while fiscal stimulus has boosted infrastructure investment and it now seems possible that China will achieve its 8% target for economic growth in 2009. Recent economic statistics suggest that India's economy is presently stronger than expected, and next largest economy among the developing Asian countries, Indonesia, also seems to be performing relatively well.

In conclusion, the absence of a slowdown in the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide at Mauna Loa at the moment is inconsistent with the view that the present recession is globally severe, and this cannot be readily explained by known natural influences. Perhaps, rather than being a recession of "great" and "global" scale, the key characteristic of the present economic downturn is a shift of activity from the developed to the developing countries, and, aided by fiscal stimulus, into non-traded production such as construction and infrastructure investment..


Update:

Commenter Joao Carlos points out that the Brazilian economy (now one of the ten largest economies in the world) has also proved stronger than expected. Indeed, Brazil's "resilience" was specifically mentioned by Moody's credit rating agency yesterday as one of the reasons why Moody's have put Brazil's domestic and foreign currency sovereign credit ratings on review for an upgrade.

Sunday, 7 June 2009

Does China appreciate sterling?

RebelEconomist has been surprised by the recent strength of sterling, especially against the euro and the yen, and this short post offers an explanation for this behaviour which, as far as RebelEconomist is aware, has not previously been suggested by forex analysts (at least not when RebelEconomist put the suggestion to Macro Man earlier this week). In brief, RebelEconomist suspects that the Chinese have been buying sterling as part of their efforts to diversify their foreign exchange reserves away from the US dollar. Disclosure: RebelEconomist concurs with Angela Merkel, and holds a significant fraction of his savings in currencies issued by more conservative central banks than the BoE or the Fed).

While sterling did depreciate by about 30% (in terms of the Bank of England effective exchange rate index) from the beginning of the financial crisis (marked by, say, the demise of Northern Rock in September 2007) to the end of March 2009, the almost 10% recovery since March is barely justified by fundamental factors. Rallying share prices, narrowing credit spreads and tentative signs of at least an end to the deterioration in macroeconomic conditions, such as the recent uptick in the UK manufacturing purchasing managers' index, have been offset by increasing concern about the mounting burden of UK public debt and a growing political crisis, while the Bank of England remains in the lead in quantitative easing. Moreover, this sterling appreciation has occurred not just against the dollar, which has had similar fundamentals to sterling and was arguably riding for a fall itself, but also against the euro and the yen.

So what makes RebelEconomist think that China may be driving the recent appreciation of sterling? It is not foreign exchange market reports of Chinese flows; as a former reserves manager who was sometimes amused by erroneous speculation about his own activity and who would have certainly cut off any dealer suspected of such leaks, RebelEconomist is sceptical of anecdotal flows "information" anyway. His reason for pointing to China is that diversification of China's reserves has been advocated by credible Chinese sources and it would make sense for China to diversify into sterling. Of the five reserve currencies separately identified in the IMF Currency Composition of Foreign Exchange Reserves (COFER) reports (the US dollar, euro, sterling, yen and Swiss franc), sterling is probably the only currency whose issuing authority would not resent supportive intervention by foreign central banks at the moment. And if quantitative easing does lead to inflation and renewed depreciation, sterling offers more exit routes (from exposure to further currency losses) than most other major currencies – Britain is one of the most open countries to inward direct and portfolio investment by China's state funds (meaning that China could easily switch from conventional fixed income reserves assets into real investments for protection against inflation) and in the longer term, especially if sterling declines in international importance, sterling may well become part of the euro.

Wednesday, 6 May 2009

A pictorial comparison of QE in Japan and the US/UK

See paragraphs 27 to 40 of the previous post. In a nutshell, in its quantitative easing period from 2001 to 2006, the Bank of Japan focused on creating a certain quantity of reserves, and largely allowed the market to determine how this should support the price of less liquid and less creditworthy debt (although the BoJ did buy more long term JGBs in its rinban operations than usual, and also made some token purchases of commercial paper and equities). The Fed, and to a lesser extent the BoE, are, by contrast, targeting their asset purchases on particular markets in which they are not normally buyers, notably the markets for mortgage-backed and some other asset-backed securities, and creating reserves as a by-product that the banks are content to hold because it bears some interest.























Update on June 7th 2009:

In an incisive comment on this picture posted on the excellent Worthwhile Canadian Initiative blog, Nick Rowe noted that, since an increase in money supply is believed to eventually lead to an equi-proportional rise in prices across the entire economy (see paragraph 5 of the previous post), the glasses ought to be on a level, connected by straws. That’s right, but then a viscous fluid (like maple syrup) would be needed to represent the time taken for the money injected to spread through the economy, and viscosity is hard to represent in a picture. I guess analogies are rarely perfect!

Tuesday, 28 April 2009

Easing understanding

Introduction

1.     As the financial crisis has developed and increasingly affected real economic activity, the US Federal Reserve and the Bank of England (BoE) have resorted to progressively more aggressive and unconventional easing measures. While these measures have been described in the media as "quantitative easing" and even "printing money", these terms have not been used rigorously or even consistently. Commentators often misunderstand the significance of issues such as the payment of interest on reserves and the growth in base (central bank) money. It seems that the confusion is at least partly explained by the fairly superficial coverage of monetary policy implementation in economics textbooks, which abstract from certain details that are key to appreciating the differences between conventional easing, the pre-crisis idea of quantitative easing (QE) as applied by the Bank of Japan (BoJ) from 2001 to 2006, and the unconventional measures currently being applied by the Fed and the BoE.

2.     This post is an ambitious attempt to provide an explanation of monetary policy easing that covers all the aspects necessary to understand both conventional and unconventional easing measures. Although there has been some such explanation in the media, RebelEconomist has not found it entirely satisfactory, and offers his own here. It is hoped that his combination of experience of central bank market operations and academic monetary economics might just produce an account of monetary policy that does not leave vital questions unanswered and expresses some ideas in a slightly different way that can provide fresh insight. The post classifies Fed and BoE easing policies as they have evolved through the crisis. It is argued that while both central banks' unconventional measures have always been specified in quantitative terms, they are more accurately described as quantitative liquidity, credit and term easing rather than quantitative monetary easing. Neither central bank has yet begun to print money.

3.     Given its objective, the post is long, so readers who are mainly interested in present policy may wish to fast-forward to the discussion of unconventional easing measures in the last section. And in view of the complexity of the issue, assessment of the effectiveness and merit of the various policy options is mostly left for subsequent posts. Therefore, in the style of the central banker he once was, RebelEconomist has numbered the paragraphs for ease of reference here and in subsequent posts on monetary policy.


Fundamentals of easing

4.     Modern money (as opposed to commodity money such as gold coins) is debt; a readily transferable and widely accepted type of continuously redeemable debt. Typically money is non-interest-bearing debt owed by a highly creditworthy borrower such as a central bank in the case of banknotes or, in the case of deposit money, a commercial bank backed by state deposit insurance.

5.     To avoid going into the complexity and mystery of the monetary policy transmission mechanism, suffice it to say that, other things equal, an increase in the stock of money (also known as the money "supply", which perhaps confusingly implies a flow) has a stimulating effect on economic activity for a few months at least, and that short-term interest rates play a key role in the process. Because money is a substitute for interest-bearing short-term debt (ie money available with a short delay), an increase in the money supply tends to increase the price of all types of short-term debt, and since the price of a unit of debt (ie a unit of money due to be repaid when the loan matures) is conventionally expressed in terms of a rate of interest, increasing the money supply lowers short-term interest rates. Naturally, the influence tends to be greatest on the shortest and most creditworthy forms of debt that are money's nearest substitutes. The relationship between the money supply and the interest rate on such debt is normally described as a money demand curve, but is equivalently a debt market supply curve (Figure 1), and the short-term debt market is known as the "money market". Perhaps because the transactions-facilitating function of money is often likened to the lubricating oil in a machine, increasing the money supply or lowering interest rates is described as easing, while contracting money supply is called tightening. The degree of easing or tightening is called the stance of monetary policy. In the longer term, say about two or three years, the interest-rate-lowering and activity-stimulating effect of easing dissipates as the additional money becomes distributed in a pattern similar, in the absence of changes in the structure of the economy, to that of the original stock of money, at which point the residual effect of the ease will be an equi-proportional rise in prices – in short, a completed round of inflation.






















6.     The supply of money is, of course, regulated by the central bank. Although there is more than one type of money, elementary explanations of monetary policy often abstract from this complication by assuming that they are held in stable proportions defined by "multipliers", meaning that the central bank need only regulate the supply of one kind of money to control them all.

7.     The form of money that the central bank directly influences is commercial banks' current account balances at the central bank. Although central banks typically pay little if any interest on positive balances in these accounts, commercial banks nevertheless tend to keep their central bank current accounts in credit, for at least two reasons. First, these accounts are used to settle any transaction that the banks undertake with the central bank, and sometimes also to settle inter-bank payments and transfers between the government and the banks, mostly on behalf of the banks' customers. Since these payments are not entirely predictable and the central bank normally heavily penalises overdrafts, the banks maintain a positive current account balance to provide some margin for error. Second, as a liability of the currency issuer itself (Figure 2), credit in a bank's current account balance at the central bank is the safest of all monetary assets, so banks may use their central bank current accounts as a store of value if the extra return available on alternative investments is not enough to compensate for their greater risk. In view of the functions that they serve, banks' current account balances are also called "reserves".






















8.     Banks' holdings of reserves for transactions purposes can be expected to be proportional to the size of their customers' demand deposits. An archetypal transaction that commercial banks undertake with the central bank is to buy and sell banknotes as their customers respectively withdraw and deposit currency (currency includes coins as well as banknotes, but coins are relatively insignificant by value and are not always a liability of the central bank). Transactions between bank customers generate inter-bank payments. In either case, it seems likely that the greater the value of customer deposits, the larger the maximum outflow that customer activity is liable to generate, which their bank must be prepared to cope with. The amount of reserves that a bank would choose to hold for investment purposes depends on the trade-off between the risk and returns on reserves and other available assets, but normally, the return on reserves is so much less than even other credit-risk-free assets such as treasury bills that commercial banks hold practically no reserves as a store of value. Left to its own devices, a bank will determine its holding of reserves according to the trade-off between the likelihood and cost of overdrafts and the relative risk-adjusted return on reserves. However, in many countries, the regulatory authorities mandate a minimum fraction of deposits that must be held as reserves, partly for prudential reasons, and partly to control deposit money growth via the effective tax on deposits imposed by the need to hold zero or low interest reserves. In such cases the regulatory reserve requirement is usually the binding constraint. Anyway, whether voluntary or mandatory, the reserve ratio means that central banks' control over the quantity of banking system reserves also implies some control over the stock of deposits and hence of broader monetary aggregates.

9.     Although reserves represent the interface of the central bank and the rest of the economy, the stock of banknotes is normally a far larger liability of the central bank. Commercial banks may exchange reserves for banknotes at par, freely and on demand, and together, reserves and banknotes comprise what is called base money. The central bank would be unwise to try to control the money supply via banknotes – restricting the supply of banknotes could trigger a panic run on any bank apparently having difficulty meeting customer withdrawals. Like reserves, however, the value of banknotes in circulation is related to the size of demand deposits. Just as reserves provide the basic type of money for banks, banknotes provide the most widely accepted and dependable form of money for individuals. The transfer of banknotes represents immediate, often unrecorded, settlement of a transaction, which makes banknotes most suitable for occasional, relatively small transactions outside of committed business relationships, and for this purpose individuals hold a buffer stock of banknotes representing some fraction of their deposits. This means that the central bank has some indirect control of banknote circulation via reserves.

10.     While the banking system as a whole can ultimately only acquire reserves from the central bank, commercial banks trade reserves between themselves by borrowing and lending for settlement in their central bank current accounts, generally from one day to the next. The interest rate in this inter-bank market for overnight reserves loans indicates whether the supply of reserves is adequate for the banks' collective needs. Assuming that no interest is paid on positive reserve balances and that the central bank's overdraft charges, or the penalties for insufficient reserves in a regime of statutory reserve requirements, begin with a heavy cost for a shortfall of any size, the short-term market demand curve for reserves can be expected to resemble that shown in Figure 1. When the banks are close to their collective reserve requirement, overnight reserves loans will trade at a high interest rate as almost as many banks are in danger of incurring shortfall charges as being left with excess reserves. If, however, reserves are even slightly in surplus the interest rate will drop steeply, until as the interest rate approaches zero, it becomes worth borrowing reserves for the security they provide, for example against accidental overdrafts arising from operational errors. Such surpluses, however, do not persist for long, because banks can make more profitable use of excess reserves by expanding their lending to non-bank counterparties, so the inter-bank market for reserves normally operates on the steep part of the demand curve. The practical implication is that the demand for reserves is normally highly inelastic with respect to interest rates, with the result that small changes in the supply of reserves lead to large changes in short-term inter-bank interest rates.

11.     Since it is a point that seems to cause some confusion, note that, although an individual bank does expend reserves when it lends to a customer, reserves are not consumed or transferred outside the banking system in the process, even if the borrower is a non-bank customer. When the borrower draws on the loan, for example to purchase a car, reserves are transferred from the borrower's bank to the car seller's bank. Although it is conceivable that the car buyer might withdraw banknotes to pay the car seller, generating a fall in reserves as the car buyer's bank purchases banknotes from the central bank (Figure 2), these would normally be quickly paid into the car seller's bank account and sold back to the central bank for reserves. A banking system surplus of reserves is absorbed by an increase in the value of bank lending up to the point that the banks are generally content with the allocation of their assets between reserves and loans, not because the reserves are used up in some way, apart from a slight drain of reserves to pay for the increased circulation of banknotes commensurate with the growth of bank deposits.

12.     Central banks manage the stock of reserves in pursuit of both macroeconomic and microeconomic objectives. Their macroeconomic task is to use the influence of reserves to adjust the money supply and short-term interest rates to regulate economic activity, subject to the constraint of holding inflation close to some target rate. The trick is to exploit the medium-term, activity-altering phase of the money transmission mechanism without allowing its long-run outcome to generate unacceptable results in terms of inflation. Central banks' microeconomic task is to offset unwanted variations in the stock of reserves as it is impacted by flows associated with events like tax payment deadlines and holiday surges in banknote circulation, while accommodating structural changes arising from economic growth and evolving payments technology. Although in principle a central bank could attempt to determine the size of the adjustment required and arrange one or more transactions to produce exactly that change in reserves, in practice, central banks calibrate the supply of reserves according to short-term interest rates. They operate in this way because of the key role played by interest rates in the money transmission mechanism, and because the inelasticity of the demand for reserves means that a small mistake in the central bank's estimate of the need for reserves can drive interest rates to extremes. Most commonly, the target is specified in terms of the overnight interest rate in the inter-bank market for loanable reserves (ie "Fed funds" in the USA).

13.     Note that interest rate targeting means that the textbook account of deposit money creation, in which the central bank supplies base money followed by an iterative process of bank lending and customers re-depositing base money that creates some multiple of the initial injection of base money, is unrealistic. Actually, money creation is generally initiated by bank lending, with lending generating deposits and deposits in turn generating a need for reserves which are reactively supplied by the central bank in order to fix its targeted interest rate. Nevertheless, the fact that banks are obliged to hold some fraction of their deposits as low interest reserves, plus an additional fraction as non-interest-bearing banknotes in the bank's safes and tills to cover withdrawals during the interval before its branches can be re-supplied, allows the central bank to exert some influence over deposit money creation. By restricting the supply of reserves to raise the (opportunity) cost of commercial banks' base money requirement, the central bank can curtail the marginally profitable expansion of banks' balance sheets. And the much-discussed difference between targeting interest rates and targeting money supply should not be exaggerated. Nearly all central banks maintain some economic model that links the interest rate they target with their macroeconomic objective variables like economic activity (as represented by GDP) and inflation. The relationships included in the model incorporate, implicitly if not explicitly, the role of the money supply in the transmission mechanism.

14.     In principle, the central bank could fix its targeted interest rate by adding or subtracting reserves through any type of transaction that settles in commercial banks' current accounts, relying on the substitutability of reserves and short-term debt to affect the relevant interest rate. However, as it may be necessary to withdraw as well as inject reserves, central banks typically buy assets with relatively stable value and which can be liquidated (ie sold or lent in return for money) with minimal transactions costs. Even if the bulk of the assets are unlikely to ever need to be sold because contractions of the base money supply by more than a small proportion are rare, the assets are normally retained by the central bank to ensure its solvency and hence public confidence in its currency, so central banks are famously conservative investors across their entire portfolio. Traditionally, central banks traded gold, but since convertibility has been abolished, they have been able to buy income-generating financial assets instead. Given the importance of security, central banks favour fixed income debt assets, and normally only debt of the most creditworthy borrowers or short-term secured loans to banks in the form of repurchase ("repo"; strictly, from the money lender's point of view, "reverse repo") agreements collateralised by creditworthy bonds. Since nearly all investors are willing to hold very safe debt, such debt is also highly liquid, and short-term debt is quickly self-liquidating anyway as it matures. In practice, therefore, debt has now become the standard tool for monetary policy adjustment. Conventional easing involves creating reserves to make repo loans or to buy government or quasi-government bonds (Figure 2).


From interest rate targeting to paying interest on reserves

15.     Naturally, when debt is used as a monetary asset, there is potential for confusion between the interest rate on the central bank's target debt instrument, such as overnight inter-bank loans, and on the debt it trades in pursuit of that target in its monetary policy operations. Moreover, using debt allows the central bank to influence interest rates through its assets as well as its liabilities, an idea which is key to understanding and classifying the unconventional easing policies being applied during the present financial crisis. It is therefore unfortunate that few textbooks make this potential distinction between target and operational interest rates entirely clear.

16.     Not all central banks buy long-term debt in their monetary policy operations, and even those that do, notably the Fed and the Bank of Japan, tend to use short-term debt to make their marginal adjustments to the supply of reserves and buy long-term debt occasionally for the stable core of their asset portfolio. In fact, as RebelEconomist noted in a previous post, it is not clear why a central bank that targets short-term interest rates only should buy long-term debt at all. In developed countries in normal economic conditions, the balance sheet of the central bank tends to be small compared with that of the whole banking system, so it would seem best to concentrate the influence of the central bank's asset purchases on debt that, if not actually the target debt instrument itself, is as similar to it as possible. It may be necessary to use a close substitute rather than the target debt instrument itself because the target debt instrument is not considered a suitable investment for the central bank. Usually, this is because the target debt type is unsecured, such as inter-bank deposits, and the central bank wants to avoid managing the credit risk involved in buying such debt (which besides running some risk of loss, may require the central bank to favour dealing with some banks over others). Also, if an overnight interest rate is targeted, the central bank may prefer not to renew its entire stock of assets every day, in which case it may choose to deal in, say, one-week debt instead. Another advantage for the central bank of specialising in short-term debt is that its short maturity produces a strong natural drain of reserves as the debt is repaid, which puts the central bank in a strong position to reset the stock of reserves and interest rates frequently.

17.     For an interest rate targeting central bank, its operational objective is to hold the rate of interest on its target debt instrument close to the target with minimal variability. To this end, central banks use two basic trading strategies. Their primary strategy is to attempt to estimate the change in reserves necessary to guide the interest rate to the target and arrange one or more transactions to engineer that change. The estimation problem is more one of allowing for scheduled flows like maturing central bank loans and anticipating the actions of institutions and people, known as autonomous factors, rather than identifying and using the money demand curve. Usually, the adjustment required is an injection of reserves to replace maturing debt held by the central bank. The central bank then establishes transactions to make that adjustment by offering to buy or sell as necessary the corresponding amount of debt, either at a fixed interest rate or by auction. Although the central bank usually deals with a limited set of counterparties, these may include non-banks, since transactions with them are settled using their correspondent bank's reserve account. This procedure is called an open market operation (OMO). Central banks' secondary strategy is to provide standing facilities which offer to take deposits at an interest rate some spread below the target and to lend reserves at an interest rate some margin above the target, in practically unlimited size. These standing facilities provide respectively a floor and ceiling to the targeted interest rate in case, even after OMO adjustment, it would otherwise miss the target by an intolerably large amount. Since the standing facilities are designed to be used only in exceptional circumstances, the spreads are typically prohibitively wide.

18.     In theory, the interest rate inelasticity of the demand for reserves means that a change in the target interest rate can be accomplished with a small change in the size of the next OMO, and also that a failure to make the correct size change could result in the new target interest rate being missed badly. In practice, because the central bank's money market counterparties know that the central bank has the market power to correct any persistent miss and is able to impose sanctions on any of them considered to be behaving unhelpfully, the process of setting interest rates is facilitated by a degree of cooperation. Normally, the mere announcement of a change in the target interest rate is sufficient to shift market interest rates to the new target.

19.     Note that the fact that the target and operational debt instruments may differ means that the bounds on the target interest rate may not exactly correspond to the rates at which the standing facilities are offered. In particular, because central banks generally only lend on a secured basis, unsecured inter-bank deposits such as Fed funds could conceivably trade at a slightly higher rate than the standing lending facility. Adding to the difficulty of summarising the stance of monetary policy in terms of a single target interest rate, the debt instruments used in OMOs and standing facilities may well differ, with the standing facilities normally being provided only for the shortest possible term of overnight, while the instruments used for the standing facilities themselves usually differ, if only because the central bank does not give collateral when it takes deposits but requires collateral when lending. Nevertheless, as they have refined their operational techniques to achieve greater control of interest rates, central banks have increasingly emphasised the interest rates they set directly rather than market rates, especially the interest rate in the short-term OMOs they use to make marginal adjustments. This key interest rate is generally referred to as the "bank rate", or "repo rate" if that is how the OMOs are conducted. The standing facilities are typically offered at an equal and rarely-adjusted spread above and below the bank rate to define a symmetric interest rate corridor that moves up and down with the bank rate. In fact, monetary policy is now routinely set in terms of the central operational bank rate rather than some target rate, with market interest rates serving merely as indicators of the effect of the policy and of market expectations of policy changes.

20.     As central banks have placed increasing importance on controlling, and being seen to control, interest rates, a natural development of their strategy has been to change the nature of base money itself to make their job easier. Since it is the interest rate inelasticity of the demand for reserves that makes market interest rates inherently volatile, and since it is the sharp difference between the return on adequate reserves – avoiding a penalty of some size – and on surplus reserves – zero – that causes the inelasticity, an obvious way to reduce the volatility of interest rates is to smooth this disparity. The opportunity cost of holding excess reserves can be reduced by paying interest on reserves. Effectively, this raises the dashed line in Figure 1, so that the money demand curve – or to be more precise, since the return on reserves now differs from the zero return on banknotes, the reserves demand curve – is flatter in the normal range of interest rates. Where there are mandatory reserve requirements, the sharpness of the shortfall penalty can be blunted by applying it to the average level of reserves over some maintenance period, so that a shortfall on one day can be offset against a surplus on another day. Assuming that an overdraft, even for one day, is still unacceptable to the central bank, reserves averaging works better when the reserves requirement is larger and the level of reserves varies around a level well above zero. Paying interest on reserves makes such a larger reserve requirement more acceptable to the commercial banks. For these reasons the European Central Bank and the Bank of England remunerate reserves, and the Fed had been asking the US Congress for permission to pay interest on reserves long before the financial crisis.

21.     To stabilise money market interest rates with maximum effectiveness, the reserves demand curve should be practically flat at the policy rate, which suggests that the interest rate paid on reserves should be close to the policy rate – but certainly not above it, which would establish an arbitrage opportunity. However, paying any interest rate approaching the policy rate encourages the use of reserves as an unbeatably secure investment. The solution adopted by the ECB and the BoE is to remunerate reserves holdings of up to the required size at their policy rate, but pay no interest on any amount above this.

22.     It is important to realise that, because, other things equal, banks can be expected to hold more reserves when they are remunerated, paying interest on reserves changes the relationship between the stock of base money and other economic variables, notably inflation. The introduction of voluntary reserve requirements and remunerated reserves by the BoE, which previously had no reserves requirements, provides a revealing case study of the effect of paying interest on reserves. Prior to the change in regime on May 18th 2006, banks' current account balances at the BoE were normally much less than £1bn. When the BoE began to pay interest on reserves at their policy repo rate, banks' current account balances increased to around £20bn almost immediately – the BoE simply bought more repo debt in its OMOs, on which it charged its repo rate, to accommodate the notified increase in demand for reserves remunerated at the same rate. Since the increase in the stock of reserves was equal to about half the value of the stock of sterling currency in circulation at the time, the "velocity" of base money (essentially the number of times in a year that the money stock would need to change hands to sell annual economic output at prevailing prices) fell by a third, yet the regime change had no noticeable effect on inflation or real output. Analysts accustomed to using base money growth to assess the monetary discipline of a central bank, assuming that the ability to freely switch from reserves to banknotes and vice versa makes them macroeconomically indistinguishable, need to revise their approach when interest is paid on reserves.

23.     Paying interest on reserves represents the apotheosis of interest rate targeting. Market interest rates on short-term, highly creditworthy debt are closely shepherded towards the target by the existence of a large volume of similar assets in the form of central bank liabilities bearing a near-target rate of interest as well as the availability of a large volume of secured loans at a near-target interest rate. To see how remunerated reserves hold up market interest rates, consider the example of a large retailer flush with currency after an unexpectedly successful January sale. The retailer deposits the currency with its bank at its stipulated deposit rate, and the bank pays the currency into the central bank in return for an increase in its reserve balance. The retailer's bank then has the problem of somehow earning as much interest as possible on its additional assets in the interval before it can arrange a loan to another customer. In the absence of interest on reserves, the bank may have to offer to lend at a very low interest rate in order to induce another bank to hold the reserves, which one might just be willing to do if they are aware of the possibility of a large withdrawal by one of their customers and the opportunity cost of holding the reserves is sufficiently low. With interest paid on reserves however, even if the retailer's bank has excess reserves, it can either afford to hold the excess itself and wait for a shortfall later in the reserve maintenance period, or lend the reserves to another bank waiting for a shortfall, at a higher interest rate reflecting the lower opportunity cost of holding remunerated reserves. If a shortfall never emerges, at least one bank may be forced to use the standing deposit facility, perhaps at a modest loss. If the reserves requirements are voluntary, in view of the recent use of the standing deposit facility some banks may specify an increased holding of reserves for the next reserve maintenance period, in which case even a permanent increase in reserves can be accommodated without lower interest rates.

24.     The efforts made by central banks to strengthen their grip on short-term interest rates reflect what has become the mainstream approach of calibrating monetary policy according to short-term interest rates on highly creditworthy debt, rather than some measure of money supply or exchange rate for example. In normal economic conditions, central banks leave interest rates on longer-term debt to be determined by market expectations of the future path of short-term interest rates and the profile across the range of debt terms (ie the term structure) of market term risk premia. Although central banks may try to shape market interest rate expectations by committing to adjust short-term interest rates in pursuit of certain policy objectives and by giving their view of the macroeconomic situation and outlook, they do not normally use their monetary policy market operations to influence longer-term interest rates directly. Similarly, in normal economic conditions, central banks do not attempt to influence the liquidity and credit risk premia, and hence the interest rates, on debt that is less liquid and less creditworthy than the debt they ordinarily buy.


The zero lower bound and quantitative easing in Japan

25.     If the policy rate is a target for some money market interest rate such as the interest rate on overnight inter-bank reserves loans, there will exist some finite amount of zero or low interest reserves that the central bank can supply to bring down this market rate to a positive target, even if the autonomous factors make it hard to specify exactly what that supply of reserves will be. And if the policy interest rate is the central bank's own OMO repo rate, the central bank can of course establish any particular positive interest rate of its choice on that type of debt, provided that it is prepared to lend or borrow in sufficient size at that rate. It is, however, conceivable that in severe economic downturns, the prospects for economic activity and inflation become so weak that the central bank's macroeconomic model suggests that a zero or even negative interest rate is needed to meet its objectives, and in this case it is theoretically impossible for a central bank to engineer a precisely zero (nominal) interest rate using market operations alone. If reserves are available to borrow at zero interest either from the central bank or other market counterparties, a bank's demand for reserves will in theory be unlimited – if it costs nothing to borrow reserves, a bank might as well have a huge holding, just in case an opportunity arises to purchase an asset that offers a greater than zero risk-adjusted return over the same period as the reserves loan. In mathematical terms, in Figure 1, the dashed line is an asymptote, and zero provides a lower bound for the policy interest rate.

26.     In practice, central banks can succeed in lowering their policy rate to zero or even slightly less, partly because of real world limitations such as transactions costs, the convention of dealing in rounded interest rates and the finite capacity of the banking system, and partly because of the banks' willingness to cooperate with the central bank within reason. It might even be possible for a central bank to force its policy rate significantly below zero by imposing restrictions such as charging interest on reserves, but this has not so far been attempted, probably because it would generate undesirable distortions, such as driving banks to use banknotes instead of reserves wherever possible and to settle inter-bank payments outside the central bank.

27.     Once the policy interest rate reaches zero, however, it no longer provides a sufficient measure of the monetary policy stance, because the practicalities of fixing interest rates mentioned in the preceding paragraph combined with the flatness of the reserves demand curve at a zero interest rate mean that a zero policy rate is compatible with a range of sizes of the stock of reserves. This matters because any amount of reserves in excess of the supply necessary to sustain a zero interest rate on the policy debt instrument influences the interest rates on other debt types that are near substitutes for reserves. For example, if the policy rate is a target for the overnight interest rate in the inter-bank market for loanable reserves, when the stock of reserves has increased to the point that the overnight interest rate has been driven to zero (ie reserves available tomorrow trade at parity with reserves available today), a further increase in reserves supply affects the price of the next nearest substitute (eg two-day loans) entirely directly (ie no longer via the overnight interest rate). Similarly, if the policy rate is defined as the central bank's operating interest rate (eg an overnight repo rate), the central bank is able to add to its easing effort without relaxing its grip on the policy rate by, for example, undertaking supplementary OMOs which lend for a slightly longer term or accept lower quality collateral than usual. And when the interest rate on the nearest substitute to the policy debt instrument reaches zero, the central bank can turn to the next nearest substitute and so on, in a cascade of easing. Ultimately, the central bank can buy real assets and even goods and services with base money, so there is no question that a central bank can create inflation if that is considered necessary. As Fed Chairman Bernanke explained in his well-known speech of 21 November 2002, a central bank has not "run out of ammunition" when its policy interest rate has been reduced to zero. On the contrary, it seems reasonable to believe that easing is no less effective at boosting activity and prices after the interest rate on the central bank's primary target debt instrument has reached zero.

28.     Clearly, a precise description of the monetary policy stance when the policy rate reaches the zero lower bound could comprise a vector of interest rates on debt types that are progressively more distant substitutes of the policy debt instrument. A more straightforward approach, which is also consistent with a policy of leaving the market to determine how easing spreads beyond the policy debt instrument, is to express the monetary policy stance in terms of the quantity of reserves. The best-known example of such an easing campaign is from Japan, where between 2001 and 2006 monetary policy was (besides the virtually zero interest rate prevailing in the overnight inter-bank debt market – known in Japan as the overnight call rate) specified in terms of a series of increasingly large targets for the banks' current account balances at the BoJ, culminating in a target of ¥30-35tn (equivalent to about 8% of Japanese GDP). Monetary easing that is expressed in terms of the quantity of reserves held by the banks is, in RebelEconomist's opinion, the most appropriate definition of quantitative easing.


Unconventional policy and the financial crisis

29.     Although the unconventional measures now being applied by the Fed are often described as quantitative easing, Fed policy developed from the opposite direction to the BoJ's QE policy in the sense that the Fed policy started with the aim of easing risk premia and evolved into monetary easing, whereas the BoJ policy began as monetary easing and compressed risk premia as it extended. Fed and BoE unconventional easing began as a response to the financial crisis, at a time when they were holding their interest rates well above zero because of the potential inflationary threat posed by the high commodity prices sustained into last year. In fact, it is questionable whether Fed and BoE unconventional easing could until recently even be properly described as monetary policy, although of course, as the financial crisis has increasingly restrained the real economy, both central banks have also been undertaking conventional monetary easing by cutting interest rates.

30.     At first, the financial problem was seen as one of a lack of liquidity (liquidity being defined here as ease of transacting rather than as, for example, abundance of money). As the US housing bubble burst and it became clear that many marginal borrowers were likely to default, investors shunned mortgage-backed securities (MBS), especially complex structures including sub-prime mortgages, and the debt of any borrower believed to have a significant fraction of its (book) net worth tied up in them. Banks and money market funds that had funded holdings of MBS with short-term borrowing were faced with either paying ruinous interest rates to roll over their debt, especially for any term longer than a day or so, or else selling their MBS at such low prices that they would have become insolvent. The Fed took the view that market prices for MBS and for the debt of their holders were depressed more by an unwarranted rise in investor risk aversion leading to larger liquidity, credit and term risk premia than by a realistic assessment of greater risk, and acted to help the systemically important holders of MBS obtain funding through what was expected to be a temporary crisis. For this purpose, on December 12th 2007 the Fed introduced the term auction facility (TAF), which provided funding for a longer period than the normal Fed OMOs, on the security of lower quality collateral, including certain types of MBS.

31.     The idea was that the TAF would reduce the spread between the interest rates on highly liquid debt such as treasury bills and on bank debt collateralised by lower quality bonds. Besides narrowing spreads on short-term debt, by providing a way of raising liquidity from MBS the TAF could also reduce the spread between MBS and treasuries of similar maturity. However, the Fed set no target for any spread, but instead announced a schedule to auction a fixed quantity of loans. In that way the TAF was a quantitative easing policy.

32.     Note that the TAF was not supposed to ease the credit risk premium. Contrary to what at least one academic has written, a repo loan is not free of credit risk just because it is collateralised by government bonds, and is not necessarily more risky when less creditworthy bonds are accepted as collateral. A repo loan suffers credit loss if the borrower defaults and the collateral is then worth less than the value of the loan, regardless of whether this shortfall arises from interest rate or credit risk. To ensure robust security, an initial margin or haircut is subtracted from the value of the bonds pledged as collateral in determining the amount of collateral required. When less creditworthy bonds are pledged, a larger haircut is applied to cover the expected value of the additional losses associated with credit impairment, so provided that the haircut is assessed correctly, a repo loan collateralised by mortgage-backed securities is no more risky than a repo collateralised by government bonds. Note further that the TAF funding was not ultimately provided by the Fed itself in the form of base money, because the Fed raised the money it lent by either selling or not rolling over maturing treasury bills from the assets it had bought in supplying the existing stock of base money. In other words more commonly associated with central bank intervention in currency markets, the operation was sterilised. In fact, some of its spread narrowing effect was due to the additional supply of treasury bills keeping treasury bill yields higher than otherwise as the Fed reduced its holding. The Fed effectively substituted one asset on its balance sheet for another less liquid asset of similar maturity and credit risk, without changing the size of its balance sheet. The operation might be most appropriately described as substitutional quantitative liquidity easing.

33.     As the financial crisis grew through 2008, with the Fed increasing the size and maturity of the TAF and adding new programmes like the Primary Dealer Credit Facility lending against a wider variety of collateral, the Fed reached the point where it was running out of treasury bills. The Fed could no longer continue to increase its lending against illiquid securities without either selling longer-term treasuries, and thereby probably raising longer-term interest rates including the economically important mortgage rates, or expanding its liabilities and balance sheet. At the time, however, persistently high commodity prices made the Fed reluctant to deliberately expand its non-interest-bearing, monetary liabilities (expansion on the scale required would have driven the Fed funds rate to zero) and limited borrowing powers prevented the Fed issuing securities without permission from Congress. The solution adopted was for the US Treasury to issue and sell new treasury bills and deposit the proceeds at the Fed to fund further lending, in a scheme called the Supplementary Financing Program introduced on September 17th. Now, extra lending by the Fed was matched and funded by a liability in the form of a Treasury deposit, and the Fed had progressed to what may be termed expansional quantitative liquidity easing. As unconventional easing continued apace, the Fed's balance sheet began to grow much faster than previously.

34.     A similar programme, called the Special Liquidity Scheme, had already been introduced by the UK authorities on April 21st 2008. This allowed banks to exchange existing mortgage-backed securities for UK treasury bills with the BoE, although the treasury bills were not owned by the BoE but were specially issued by HM Treasury and loaned to the BoE for the purpose.

35.     Following its discussion with Congress mentioned in paragraph 20, the Fed had in 2006 been granted authority to pay interest on reserves from 1 October 2011. This effectively allowed the Fed to borrow money by issuing interest-bearing liabilities, which offered a more straightforward way to raise funding for liquidity easing, since it avoided the need to continuously coordinate operations with the Treasury. After the demise of Lehman and AIG intensified the financial crisis, Congress allowed the Fed to bring the date from which it could pay interest on reserves forward to October 6th 2008. From then on, Fed purchases of less liquid assets were increasingly unsterilised with the stock of reserves allowed to grow. This new approach could be described as money-financed quantitative liquidity easing.

36.     Previously, creating a large amount of base money to fund expanded asset purchases would have been regarded as dangerously inflationary, but with interest paid on reserves, whose risk-free nature was even more highly valued during a time of financial turmoil, the banks were happy to hold the reserves. The interest-bearing reserves were effectively self-sterilising and providing the funding for the Fed asset purchases that injected them. Since Fed credit is practically the same as US government credit, paying interest on reserves is economically like selling a daily-resetting floating rate note instead of a treasury bill. In short, extra reserves are being created to allow easing rather than to cause it.

37.     Some analysts define quantitative easing as something like "an increase in the size of the central bank's balance sheet through an increase in its monetary liabilities". Under this definition, the Fed had begun quantitative easing once it began to use remunerated reserves to fund its continued balance sheet expansion. But this would be a poor definition of quantitative easing anyway, because in theory any easing involves some expansion of the central bank balance sheet and increase in monetary liabilities, even if the inelasticity of the demand for unremunerated reserves allows this change to be small.

38.     The next easing step taken by the Fed was to start buying lower quality securities outright (ie beyond only taking them as repo collateral), albeit cautiously at first. On September 19th 2008, the Fed announced that it would begin buying short-term debt of the Federal housing agencies. Initially, the Fed limited itself to only indirect exposure to the debt of less creditworthy issuers. The Commercial Paper Funding Facility was established on October 14th 2008 to buy commercial paper via a special purpose vehicle funded and owned by the Fed. On November 25th 2008, the Fed presented a plan for a Term Asset-Backed Securities Loan Facility (TALF) to lend on a collateralised but non-recourse basis to buyers of asset-backed securities comprising student, car, credit card and small business loans – the non-recourse funding effectively involving selling a credit guarantee. With these programmes, the Fed had graduated to credit easing.

39.     Also on November 25th 2008, the Fed announced that it would begin outright purchases of $100bn of longer-term agency securities and $500bn of agency-guaranteed MBS, specifically mentioning its desire to lower mortgage interest rates by this action. At its monetary policy meeting on December 16th, the Fed cut the Fed funds target to 0-¼%, meaning that it had practically exhausted its ability to ease conventionally anyway, and the post-meeting statement said that purchases of longer-term treasuries would be considered. A programme to buy $300bn of longer-term treasuries as well as a further $200bn of agencies and $750bn of agency MBS was duly announced on March 18th 2009. The Fed's easing efforts now included term easing, and were specified in quantitative terms, so it does not seem unreasonable to describe Fed policy as quantitative easing. Although the Fed did not state an intention to deliberately increase the quantity of reserves, the relatively stable demand from the public for banknotes means that, in practice, the proceeds of these asset purchases as they are made through 2009 can be expected to increase reserves by a similar amount. Fed policy has now reached the same point as BoJ QE a few years previously, with the quantity of reserves held at the Fed standing at $925bn (about 6% of US GDP) at the time of writing.

40.     The BoE meanwhile had already adopted money-financed quantitative easing on March 5th 2009, when it cut its repo rate to ½% and undertook to purchase £75bn of longer-term UK government bonds (gilts) and corporate bonds financed by an increased stock of reserves. The BoE suspended reserve requirements and undertook to manage its OMOs so that the stock of reserves would increase above the aggregate of the banks pre-existing voluntary reserve requirements by an amount corresponding to the proceeds of its asset purchases. It is interesting to note that the policy rate was not cut to zero despite the BoE's commitment to increase the stock of reserves. This suggests either that the BoE will accept market interest rates significantly below ½% if necessary (perhaps moving the repo rate down for appearances sake) or that the BoE believes that are sufficient rigidities in the sterling money market to allow the stock of reserves to be increased without OMOs at ½% becoming redundant. The BoE evidently prefers to keep its repo rate sufficiently far above zero to allow some inter-bank lending to continue – if the central bank lends at a rate that does not cover administrative costs and expected credit losses, it would not be viable for a private sector bank to lend surplus reserves.

41.     Although it might seem that every conceivable easing measure has by now been brought to bear on the financial and economic crisis, one, arguably desperate, tool remains. This is the convergence of monetary and fiscal policy, involving the central bank lending directly to the government to fund public expenditure on goods and services. Base money is created when the government draws down the loan. Monetary financing of government expenditure is the traditional definition, and RebelEconomist's preferred definition, of the term "printing money". It is unfortunate that this term has been devalued by being used during the easing campaign to express how readily central banks seem able to create resources to buy valuable assets in general, which is actually no more than the normal function of a monetary authority. Printing money to finance government expenditure would, however, be a big step, because it would mean that the central bank had given up its monetary policy independence and ability to prevent inflation when the need for easing has passed. When a central bank buys assets in the markets, because it pays the market price in base money, it should be possible for a well-capitalised central bank to reverse this position by re-selling these assets if and when it considers this necessary to bolster the value of its currency. When the central bank prints money, however, the exchange of base money for government debt is typically off-market, meaning that the debt assigned to the central bank is unlikely to be marketable and is not guaranteed to have a value as large as the base money credited to the government. So far, during this crisis, no developed country central bank has yet been obliged to print money.

Thursday, 12 February 2009

Guaranteed to be no better

Just a quick post to record an opinion on the idea of dealing with banks' troubled assets by writing insurance against their most extreme losses, a solution which has been applied in the UK, and is being considered in the US and EU as an alternative to buying the troubled assets outright. So far, proposed troubled asset purchase schemes like the TARP have been stymied by the problem of valuing the assets, which are typically mortgage-based complex structured products, at the right level to induce the banks to sell them while avoiding losses to the taxpayer.

RebelEconomist has never tried to value structured products (as a fund manager, he always avoided them), but he would imagine that the key to realistic valuation of them is their left tail (extreme loss) risk, for two reasons. First, he suspects that the structuring was often designed to shape the securities' return distributions to minimise the probability of default as defined by the rating agencies, while accepting the maximum risk given default (not to mention accepting the maximum risk short of default too) as far as such risks attracted a return premium. In other words, structured products were built to arbitrage the naïve reliance of risk management on credit ratings. The left tail of their return distribution may well be very different from regular fixed income securities. Second, by definition returns in the tails of a return distribution are seldom observed, so the tails are the most uncertain parts of the distribution. And unfortunately, in securities involving credit risk, the left tail is typically long. It is the left tail of their return distributions where the difficulty of valuing structured products resides.

This view of the troubled asset valuation problem suggests that pricing insurance against their worst losses, which essentially means buying the left tail of the return distribution only, does not represent a significantly easier task, and that writing such guarantees is not necessarily a better deal for taxpayers than buying the assets. Guarantees look cheaper (ought to generate fee income up front, in fact) because they do not involve buying the bulk of the return distribution, over which the average return should be clearly positive and which will have a relatively well-defined value like a regular bond. The danger is that this minimal initial cost makes an insurance scheme enticing to politicians who can be seen to "do something" without asking voters to make an immediate tangible sacrifice, even if there is some attempt by the official accountants to estimate the expected outlay on the guarantees. Moreover, the fact that the cost arises later, as and when the guarantees are called upon, perhaps even under a different administration, reduces the government's incentive to drive a hard bargain on the fee.

RebelEconomist still believes that something like the PRAT scheme is the right approach.

Wednesday, 31 December 2008

US economic policy shot in the foot #3: Gold

























When RebelEconomist began writing this blog a year ago, he planned to write a series of three posts criticising obsolete US economic policies that by needlessly sticking to, the US economic authorities "shoot themselves in the foot". The problem with the third of this series, however, has been that the policy concerned has proved (inadvertently) richly financially rewarding during the last year. Nevertheless, RebelEconomist still considers the policy to be questionable, especially looking forward, and wishes to fulfil his promise to write three shot-in-the-foot posts anyway, so here is the third. The subject of this post is America's massive holding of gold bullion, which dominates its foreign exchange reserves. The post concludes that the main reason why the USA holds so much gold seems to be policy inertia, and argues that for investment and presentational motives, a substantial fraction of the gold should be sold with the proceeds reinvested in reserve currency government debt.

As of December 12, the market value of the US foreign exchange reserves including gold amounted to $281bn, with gold valued at the 12/12/2008 LBMA pm fixing of $826.50 per fine troy ounce (instead of the historic value of $42.2222 used in the US Treasury and IMF reports) and reverse repo investments valued according to the cash invested (rather than the value of the collateral assets held). Of this, gold accounts for 77%, compared with the all-country average gold share of reserves of 8.5%. Gold's share of the non-SDR reserves (which is arguably more relevant because the amount of SDRs held presumably reflects US international economic policy rather than a portfolio management decision) is 82%.

While the proportion of the dollar market value of the US reserves accounted for by gold has changed with market prices, the US has held much the same physical quantity of gold – just over eight thousand metric tonnes, presently 8133.5 metric tonnes or 261.499 million troy ounces – since the early 1970s. This was the amount of gold that the USA had left when the dollar peg to gold (at a rate of $35 per troy ounce) that provided the anchor of the Bretton Woods fixed exchange rate system finally collapsed in 1973 (a process beginning in 1971 with the suspension of dollar convertibility by President Nixon) under the strain of persistent US fiscal and current account deficits. As far as RebelEconomist knows, unlike other countries which have sold gold, such as the UK, the US government has never reviewed the purpose of its gold reserve, and it seems unlikely that any rigorous secret review would have concluded that the existing holding just happened to be about the appropriate size. Perhaps the US authorities considered that raising the possibility of selling the country's gold would be too controversial, especially given the strength of the US tin foil hat brigade.

The obvious problem with holding gold is that it pays practically no interest. It is possible to lend gold, but not normally to sovereign borrowers, and even the unsecured gold loan ("lease") interest rate is relatively low. Naturally, a real asset like gold can be expected to hold its real value over the long run, but in most convertible currencies, real debt interest rates tend to be positive. As a result, conventional asset allocation techniques tend to give gold a low portfolio weight.

Figure 1 shows the mean-variance efficient portfolio weights optimised for various design portfolio returns for the four non-dollar reserve currencies separately identified in the IMF currency composition of official foreign exchange reserves (COFER) reports, plus gold. At present, the USA holds just euro and yen debt instruments in its currency reserves, plus effectively some sterling via its SDR accounts at the IMF (the present sterling weight in the SDR is 11%). On the assumption that the US authorities would not short-sell other countries' currencies, the portfolio weights are constrained to be non-negative. The analysis is based on quarterly real returns for the period 1990 to 2008 inclusive, with deutschmark returns being used for the nine years before the introduction of the euro. For each currency, each quarterly dollar return comprises the interest return on that currency plus the capital gain into dollars. Three month LIBOR rates were used to calculate interest returns, as these are readily available for the whole of the period; in practice, central banks tend to hold mostly medium term government securities with less credit risk premium and more term premium, so three month LIBOR is not unrepresentative of the return on reserves investments. For gold, a LIBOR-equivalent unsecured bank lease rate is derived from dollar LIBOR minus the gold swap (Gold Forward Offered or GOFO) rate. To obtain real returns, the dollar returns are deflated by the US import price index on the grounds that the real value of the US foreign exchange reserves in terms of their foreign purchasing power is most relevant (using real returns rather than dollar returns slightly favours gold, but the results are not greatly different).






















Despite the more than doubling of the dollar gold price over the 1990-2008 period, gold is given at most a weight of 36% in mean-variance efficient portfolios for low design portfolio returns. This is mainly because gold has the second lowest real return (an annualised rate of 4.2%) of the currencies (ranging from 3.6% in yen to 5.0% in sterling), without its returns being outstandingly stable or uncorrelated with the other currencies (which would give gold a diversification advantage). However, because the optimal portfolio at high returns is dominated by sterling, and hardly includes euros at any design returns, it could be argued that the results are unrealistic because it would not be feasible for America to invest such a large proportion of its reserves in sterling. The Swiss franc's low return means that it is not included at all, although no US reserves are presently invested in Swiss francs anyway, and that market would presumably have an even more limited capacity than sterling. The analysis is therefore repeated with the weights being capped at 10% for sterling and fixed at zero for Swiss francs, to see whether such constraints would imply a larger gold holding. As Figure 2 shows, they do not; while in the restricted analysis more gold is appropriate at medium design returns (up to 45%), at higher returns the euro is now favoured for its real return of 4.8% and most stable real return of the remaining currencies.






















The analysis strongly suggests that, even given the strong appreciation of gold in recent years, the present proportion of gold in the US foreign exchange reserves is far too high. That conclusion appears to be robust to using different methods and other reasonable assumptions. Optimisation was tried using a mean loss measure of portfolio risk instead of variance, and gave similar results. It could be argued that the sample estimates of return means, variances and covariances are unreliable, but it is unlikely that reasonable alternative estimates would give gold a much greater weighting. In particular, it would be difficult to justify using a similarly high capital gain on gold in the near term without a tinfoil hat scenario for the value of fiat currencies (which, needless to say, the US authorities would not want to use as a working assumption). Critics of mean-variance analysis sometimes argue that an evenly weighted portfolio is just as good, which would imply a non-SDR weight of 33%.

It is instructive to examine the efficient frontiers in mean / standard deviation space corresponding to the unrestricted and restricted currency allocations, which are shown in Figure 3. The fact that the portfolio risk is actually minimised towards the highest design returns suggests that, in terms of risk at least, there is little to be lost by choosing a high return portfolio. For a design real return of 4.5%, the restricted reserve portfolio weights are 42% euros, 4% yen, 10% sterling and 44% gold. This compares with the present non-SDR allocation of approximately 9% euros, 9% yen (it is impossible to identify the precise currency allocation in the US reserves because investments in reverse repo are not broken down by currency, but the remaining currency reserves are roughly evenly split) and 82% gold. Comparing the optimal and actual portfolios, the cumulative opportunity loss over the 1990-2008 period has been $26bn in interest income foregone, reduced to $5bn by offsetting capital gains of euros, yen and gold against the dollar (of the currencies considered, only sterling depreciated against the dollar). The gap between the unrestricted and restricted efficient frontiers gives some idea of the cost in return foregone or risk taken of the limited range of currencies in which the US invests its foreign exchange reserves. While sterling and Swiss franc debt markets would not have the capacity to absorb a large fraction of the US reserves, the allocation could be broadened to include other convertible currencies like Canadian and Australian dollars and Swedish krona.






















There is of course more to the case for holding some gold than just standard portfolio optimisation. History suggests that gold can provide a reliable store of value in times of extreme financial stress, such as during wartime; actually, this property of gold could be allowed for in quantitative asset allocation by using a more sophisticated description of the gold return distribution than just its central tendency (eg mean) and spread (eg variance) - in particular, with more information on the tails of the distribution. Unlike currency, gold is no country's liability and so is not subject to credit risk as long as it is physically under the control of its owner. Indeed, one reason why the USA held the majority of the world's gold bullion at the beginning of the Bretton Woods era was that the UK had been forced to pay in gold for the armaments it purchased from America in the early years of World War Two, as sterling would have presumably been rendered worthless if Britain had been defeated and occupied by the Nazis. As gold has been prized since prehistoric times, gold would probably still be valuable even if civilisation collapsed. Being of high value for a given quantity, valuable quantities of gold are easily and discreetly transported and stored. Of all countries, however, the USA has perhaps the least need for such robust security. The USA is militarily strong, has no land borders with hostile neighbours, and is a stable democracy without violent social conflict. Moreover, as one of the world's largest gold producers, America has a replacement supply and a large holding of unmined gold anyway. There does not seem to be enough justification for America to hold four fifths of its foreign exchange reserves in gold.

Another issue is that by holding so much gold, America is sending some perverse signals. When the US Treasury advises emerging market countries to minimise their holding of foreign exchange reserves on the grounds that the typically low interest rates paid by reserve assets makes them expensive to keep, holding so much gold itself makes the USA look hypocritical. In fact, given that, other than a small exposure via SDRs, none of the US reserves are held in higher yielding currencies like sterling, the USA may well have earned less interest income on its reserves than any other country in recent years. And now, at a time when the US authorities are endeavouring to revitalise the market for "troubled" risky assets by effectively exchanging them for safe assets such as treasuries, it looks incongruous to be retaining a massive holding of the most conservative investment of all; even more so when the US Treasury's share of America's foreign currency reserves have been pledged as the backing for a money market fund guarantee scheme. Worst of all, as the Federal Reserve's ongoing aggressive easing has expanded the US monetary base and raised fears of inflationary repudiation of America's massive dollar-denominated foreign debt, holding real assets like gold undermines the Fed's inflation credibility. The tinfoil hat brigade can do without more grist for their mill!

In conclusion, there is a strong case on investment and policy credibility grounds for the USA to substantially reduce its holding of gold. Even on the most conservative analysis, America should sell about half of its holding, or about four thousand tonnes of gold, and reinvest the proceeds in its normal euro and yen debt instruments, or even better, in government bonds denominated in an expanded set of currencies.

Sunday, 9 November 2008

A right PRAT

























Henry Paulson's Troubled Assets Relief Program (TARP) is designed to alleviate the disruption of the US banking system caused by its holdings of various assets of dubious value (ie "troubled"). In RebelEconomist's opinion, the TARP tackles the problem the wrong way round by trying to remove the troubled assets from the banks. As an alternative, this post proposes the Partitioned Residual Assets Trust (PRAT) scheme, which approaches the problem from the opposite direction by selling off the safer parts of the banks.

The troubled assets comprise various structured products, typically including mortgage debt, which the banks mostly came to hold by accident, either when they were left with securities created for sale just before the market dried up, or when they took them back from off-balance-sheet investment vehicles that could no longer attract funding. At first, the banks' problem was seen as a lack of liquidity, with the complexity of the troubled assets making them hard to value and therefore difficult to sell to raise cash to repay creditors or for new lending. More recently, however, it has begun to appear that the problem is that the banks' existing and potential creditors are refusing to renew or increase lending to them for fear that some banks are insolvent. The creditors suspect that the troubled assets' realisable market values, and maybe even their "hold-to-maturity" values (ie adding back any illiquidity discount), are significantly less than the book values at which they are recorded in the banks' published accounts, not least because mortgage debt has become more risky as US house prices have fallen.

In its original form, the TARP was supposed to restore confidence in the banks by buying their troubled assets, partly to remove them from the banking system and partly to revive the market for the troubled assets by establishing transacted prices and guaranteeing a backstop bid. In doing so, however, the TARP faces the same valuation problem as potential private sector buyers. It has been suggested that the TARP could determine market prices by reverse auctions, offering a progressively higher price for troubled assets until willing sellers emerge. Unfortunately, the securities concerned are typically highly idiosyncratic, partly because of the large number of different pools from which mortgages may be drawn, and partly because they were individually structured to achieve designated credit ratings and to appeal to particular buyers, so there may well be only one seller of any particular security. And their complexity would make it difficult to design a formula to reduce several variables to a single common standard of value (eg as yield is used to compare bonds with different cashflows) that would allow a range of assets to be admissible in each auction without giving any an inherent advantage. The danger is, therefore, that the TARP would pay more for individual assets than the minimum price that a bank would accept in each case.

Even if a way of determining competitive market prices for troubled assets could be found, the outcome might not raise confidence in the banks holding them. Although the availability of transacted prices should reduce uncertainty, any bank that had been assigning higher book values to such assets would have to report a revaluation loss and correspondingly reduced capital, and it is not inconceivable that using market prices for many assets would show some banks to be insolvent. It could be argued, however, that the TARP should pay more than market value for troubled assets, because it can hold them indefinitely and could therefore forego the illiquidity discount reflected in their present market values, which would give the banks some extra help. In fact, the TARP could afford to pay up to hold-to-maturity value before it would be expected to lose money on each purchase. Unfortunately, the complexity of many of the troubled assets makes it difficult to determine their fair (ie properly allowing for default risk) hold-to-maturity values too. Also, paying more may give some banks more help than they need to return to reasonable health, meaning either that the cost to the public is greater than necessary or that fewer banks can be helped with a limited amount of money.

An alternative way for the authorities to help the banks cope with bad assets, as used in previous banking crises in other countries, is to recapitalise troubled banks by buying common or preferred shares in them. This gives each bank involved additional assets to absorb losses, in return for which the public gets some claim on the bank's future profits if the recapitalisation is successful. Preference shares rank above common stock in the creditor pecking order, ensuring that losses are borne first by the banks' existing shareholders, but typically pay a fixed dividend, so that unless they are convertible into common stock their return does not increase with the profitability of the bank. The TARP was amended during its passage through Congress to include the option to buy stakes in the banks as well as their troubled assets, and following the British government's lead in taking stakes in British banks, the facility was used in the USA. The main problem with capital injections is how to set the terms to be fair to both taxpayers and existing bank shareholders. To be more precise, for a given amount of cash, how many shares should the TARP receive (note that it would not be appropriate to pay the market price of existing shares, because injecting cash makes default less likely and therefore reduces the value of the implicit option represented by the shareholders' limited liability), and, in the case of preference shares, what dividend should they pay? Only in the extreme case where a bank is definitely insolvent would it be reasonable to simply write down the value of the shareholders' equity to zero before injecting fresh capital – in other words, to nationalise the bank – as Sweden did with some banks during its banking crisis in 1992. If there is any doubt that the nationalised bank was insolvent, its shareholders can be expected to claim that the government is appropriating their property. Also, taking a public stake in a bank is a blunt instrument to deal with problems emanating from a troubled minority of assets. If the stake is held in the form of common stock, it is necessary for the government to decide whether, and if so how, to exercise shareholders' control rights, and owning shares of any kind exposes the public to all kinds of fresh business risks not necessarily arising from the troubled assets.

A better solution, it occurs to RebelEconomist, would be to combine a market-value separation of the troubled assets from the parts of the banks that provide banking services with preserving the existing bank shareholders' interest in the troubled assets. The basic idea is that, since it is the troubled assets that are hard to value, the existing bank shareholders should keep these while the rest of the bank is sold.

The details of the plan are as follows. In order to decide which banks ought to be partitioned, and which of their assets should be retained by their existing shareholders, a rough conservative valuation of each bank's assets and liabilities would be made, together with an estimate of how uncertain these valuations are. If this valuation suggests that the bank is, or has a significant probability of becoming, less capitalised than some minimum standard, the bank would be partitioned. The assets with the most uncertain values (ie the troubled assets) would be assigned to a trust fund to be passively managed on behalf of the existing bank shareholders by government-appointed managers. In other words, after partitioning the bank, the residual assets are placed in a trust, hence the acronym PRAT. Each bank share would be converted into one share in the trust. PRAT shares would be non-voting, but marketable to allow its shareholders to liquidate their stake if they wish. The gap remaining in the bank's balance sheet remaining after removal of the troubled assets would be filled by an injection of government bonds of sufficient size to bring the bank up to some highly prudent capital ratio. This safe bank, which should be relatively straightforward to value accurately, would be floated, ideally by auction, with the government receiving the proceeds to defray some of the value of their debt injection. The remaining liability, owed to the government, would then be assigned to the trust fund.

The PRAT scheme has the following notable features:

(1) The safe bank should be regarded as highly creditworthy, and be trusted by the public to provide typical banking services. While subject to banking regulation and supervision as normal (albeit probably tightened in the light of recent experience), it would be free of government control. Beyond the standard deposit insurance, it should not be necessary for the government to guarantee any of the safe bank's liabilities.

(2) Because the safe bank should be readily marketable, the existing bank shareholders should receive a fair value for it, meaning that they cannot claim that they have been cheated by the government. The value of the government debt injected into the bank to make it safe should be reflected in its flotation price, and so its generous capitalisation should not increase the debt burden on the PRAT. Although the valuation of the troubled assets used in the process was rough, these values determine only whether and how to partition the bank and are not used as transactions prices.

(3) Since the existing bank shareholders retain the troubled assets through their equity in the PRAT, they bear any losses these generate in future. Besides being cost-efficient from the public point of view, this solution also minimises moral hazard. This is not unreasonable, given that the shareholders were supposed to be in control of their business and therefore ultimately responsible for its mistakes, and were well rewarded during the boom years, not least for bearing the risk associated with being at the bottom of the pecking order. And if the troubled assets do come good, the PRAT shareholders benefit fully. In effect, the trust concentrates the risky part of the bank's balance sheet in a vehicle which, unlike a bank, does not perform a vital function in the financial system.

(4) While the PRAT should begin with positive equity based on the book values of the troubled assets, if their market values are more realistic, the trust might actually be on the edge of insolvency. This is why the PRAT is established as a trust rather than under shareholder control – to prevent the shareholders "gambling for redemption" in the hope of generating enough return to cover the trust's liability to the government. The potential cost to the taxpayer is limited to the PRAT's debt, plus its administrative expenses. Since separation from the troubled assets can be expected to give the existing bank's junior creditors a windfall gain in the value of their claims, it would be appropriate for them to bear some of the cost of the solution, which could be achieved by swapping some of their claim for PRAT equity. Bank employees' unvested stock bonuses from previous years could also be converted to PRAT shares.

To sum up, instead of removing the troubled assets from the banks, it would be better to remove the banks from the troubled assets. The PRAT scheme could achieve this in a way that is fair to both existing bank shareholders and taxpayers.